Test 20 minutes GMAT Verbal

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Quiz Questions

1.
Question 1
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- A.
  A) Logging operations in the 1920s are widely held responsible for the near extinction of other species that lived in the same area.
- B.
  B) A boom in new home construction in the early 1920s led congress to open federal lands to logging operations.
- C.
  C) A 5-year drought in the early 1920s severely reduced the output of sap in trees in northwestern America.
- D.
  D) Numbers of sightings of sap-eating gray bats fell to their lowest numbers in 1926.
- E.
  E) Sightings of sap-eating gray bats in Europe stayed roughly the same during the same period.
2.
Question 2
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- A.
  A) The publicity surrounding airline accidents is largely limited to the country in which the crash occurred.
- B.
  B) Airline accidents tend to occur far more often during certain peak travel months.
- C.
  C) Media organizations do not have any guidelines to help them decide how severe an accident must be for it to receive coverage.
- D.
  D) Airplane accidents receive coverage by news sources only when the news sources find it advantageous to do so.
- E.
  E) Studies by government regulators show that the number of airplane flight miles remains relatively constant from month to month.
3.
Question 3
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- A.
  A) refute the idea that change is bad for a corporation’s long-term health.
- B.
  B) describe how long-term planning, despite some potential pitfalls, can help a corporation to grow.
- C.
  C) compare and contrast two styles of corporate planning.
- D.
  D) evaluate the strategic planning goals of corporate America today.
- E.
  E) defend a methodology that has come under sharp attack.
4.
Question 4
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- A.
  A) a reliance on outside consultants who did not necessarily understand the nuts and bolts of the business.
- B.
  B) a dependence on theoretical models that did not always perfectly describe the workings of the company.
- C.
  C) an inherent weakness in the company’s own ability to implement the strategic plan.
- D.
  D) an excess of information and data that made it difficult to get to key concepts.
- E.
  E) the lack of a forum for middle managers to express their ideas.
5.
Question 5
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- A.
  A) put forth an opposing view on strategic plans which is later refuted.
- B.
  B) illustrate that when strategic planning is “hands-on,” it produces uninspiring results.
- C.
  C) give a concrete example of why strategic planning did not work during the 1980s.
- D.
  D) support the contention that strategic planning can be very successful when done correctly.
- E.
  E) give supporting data to prove that many companies have implemented strategic plans.
6.
Question 6
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- A.
  A) They believe that strategic planning is the key to weathering the rapid changes of the marketplace.
- B.
  B) They are working to understand and anticipate market developments that are two years ahead.
- C.
  C) Their study of market dynamics has led them to question the reliability of short-term planning strategies.
- D.
  D) They might not agree with the author that one way to survive rapidly changing conditions comes from long- range planning.
- E.
  E) They consider the mobility of capital to be a necessary condition for the growth of new technology.
7.
Question 7
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- A.
  A) The village was actually conquered by a rival tribe of bushmen, the Walutu, who didn't believe in evil spirits.
- B.
  B) Drawings on the pouches showed men fighting against monsters and ghosts.
- C.
  C) The pouches were found in the cooking areas of the houses, not in the sleeping areas, indicating the salt was used for preparing food.
- D.
  D) The pouches were smaller than those usually found in Montussi villages.
- E.
  E) Today, the Montussi bushmen no longer believe in evil spirits.
8.
Question 8
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- A.
  A) Dr Olaf Gustavson, the inventor of the Strictman diet, was obese.
- B.
  B) Many doctors recommend the Strictman diet to their patients.
- C.
  C) When deprived of sugar, the human body starts to store fat, which results in weigh increases.
- D.
  D) Three people died last month after following the Strictman diet.
- E.
  E) On average, people who followed the Strictman diet lost twenty-two pounds during the first week of the diet.
9.
Question 9
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- A.
  A) Refute a theory based on outdated evidence
- B.
  B) Present a counter-argument to an established belief
- C.
  C) Document the evolution of a doctrine
- D.
  D) Introduce a new perspective on a well-known paradigm
- E.
  E) Explain a practice by analyzing its motives
10.
Question 10
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- A.
  A) was less likely to kill captured members of opposing armies than was a soldier of the Roman Empire.
- B.
  B) operated on a basically independent level and was motivated solely by economic incentives.
- C.
  C) had few economic options and chose to fight because it was the only way to earn an adequate living.
- D.
  D) was motivated to spare prisoners’ lives by humanitarian rather than economic ideals.
- E.
  E) had no respect for his captured enemies since captives were typically regarded as weak.

Quiz Outcomes

1.
Niveau Débutant
Vous avez encore une large marge de progression. Pour parvenir à un score de GMAT supérieur à 655, il vous faudra environ 20 h de cours de Verbal.
2.
Niveau Débutant
Vous avez encore une large marge de progression. Pour parvenir à un score de GMAT supérieur à 655, il vous faudra environ 20 h de cours de Verbal.
3.
Niveau Intermédiaire
Vous avez encore une certaine marge de progression. Pour parvenir à un score de GMAT supérieur à 655, il vous faudra environ 15 h de cours de Verbal.
4.
Niveau Intermédiaire
Vous avez encore une certaine marge de progression. Pour parvenir à un score de GMAT supérieur à 655, il vous faudra environ 15 h de cours de Verbal.
5.
Niveau Avancé
Il vous reste une marge de progression mais vous êtes en bonne voie. Pour parvenir à un score de GMAT supérieur à 655, il vous faudra environ 10 h de cours de Verbal.
6.
Perfect score !
Vous êtes à niveau ! Pour parvenir à un score de GMAT supérieur à 655, il vous faudra environ 5 h de cours de Verbal.

Test 20 minutes GMAT Verbal

IMPORTANT: Merci de vous chronométrer pour que les résultats soient pertinents. Vous disposez de 20 minutes au total pour répondre aux 10 questions.

Quiz Questions

Quiz Outcomes